We have to divide that by the condition that the first ball is red to start with and get.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
P\\{\\text{(red,red)|(red,*)}\\} = \\frac{1\/3}{1\/2} = \\frac23<\/pre><\/div>\n\n\n\nThe notation on the left means the probability for (red,red) under the condition that the first ball was red.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
If you draw more balls and they all turn out to be red, you are in the setup that was studied by Laplace. After, e.g., 10 red balls it should be obvious that the probability for next ball to be red is not 1\/2. In fact, it is (n+1)\/(n+2) after n red balls, approaching 1. This is the Rule of Succession, discussed by Laplace.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Let us turn to another, more realistic setup, which yields a new problem and a new answer. <\/p>\n\n\n\n
Assume an urn filled with N red and green balls, where each ball is selected red or green with equal probability. Now, we draw a ball from the urn randomly and get a red one as before. We put it back and draw another ball. What is the probability that this is also a red ball?<\/em><\/p>\n\n\n\nThis is a fundamental different setup, since we now select each ball for the urn independently of the others. When we have fixed the number of balls as above, the balls can no longer be selected independently from each other.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
The reasoning is now much easier. But the result will still be paradoxical. It is not true that the second ball has a probability of 1\/2 to be red too. Let me explain.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
The first ball has a chance of 1\/2 to be red, obviously. If we put it back and draw another ball, there are two cases.<\/p>\n\n\n\n